CCNA 2 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?CCNA2_Final_02

    • The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
    • No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
    • The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
    • The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
  2. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

    • ip dhcp pool
    • ip address dhcp
    • service dhcp
    • ip helper-address
  3. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?​

    • a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
    • a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message​
    • a DHCPREQUEST unicast message​
    • a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message​
  4. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​CCNA2_Final_06

    • A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
    • R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​
    • The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
    • The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
  5. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

    • ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
    • ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
    • ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
      ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
    • ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
      ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
    • No additional configuration is necessary.
  6. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

    • There is no end-to-end addressing.
    • The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​
    • The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
    • The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​
  7. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

    • Telnet
    • IPsec
    • HTTP
    • ICMP
    • DNS
  8. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

    • It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
    • It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
    • It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
    • It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
  9. Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)CCNA2_Final_07

    • R1 Gi0/1.12
    • R1 S0/0/0
    • R2 S0/0/1
    • R2 Gi0/1.20
    • inbound
    • outbound
  10. Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

    • destination MAC address
    • ICMP message type
    • computer type
    • source TCP hello address
    • destination UDP port number
  11. A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

    • in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
    • in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
    • in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
    • in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device
  12. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

    • access list number between 1 and 99
    • access list number between 100 and 199
    • default gateway address and wildcard mask
    • destination address and wildcard mask
    • source address and wildcard mask
    • source subnet mask and wildcard mask
    • destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
  13. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

    • 0.0.0.127
    • 0.0.0.255
    • 0.0.1.255
    • 0.0.255.255
    • A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
  14. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

    • access-class 5 in
    • access-list 5 deny any
    • access-list standard VTY
      permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
    • access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
    • ip access-group 5 out
    • ip access-group 5 in
  15. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

    • permit ip any any
    • permit ip any host ip_address
    • permit icmp any any nd-na
    • deny ip any any
  16. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

    • It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
    • It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
    • It has an administrative distance of 1.
    • It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
  17. Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?CCNA2_Final_01

    • The ip route command was used.
    • The ipv6 route command was used.
    • Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
    • The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.
  18. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

    • IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
    • IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.
    • IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
    • IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.
  19. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?CCNA2_Final_03

    • child route
    • ultimate route
    • default route
    • level 1 parent route
  20. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

    • scalability
    • ISP selection
    • speed of convergence
    • the autonomous system that is used
    • campus backbone architecture
  21. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?i179220

    • directly attached static route
    • recursive static route
    • fully specified static route
    • floating static route
  22. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

    • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
    • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
    • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
    • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
  23. Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
  24. Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?CCNA2_Final_08

    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
  25. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

    • OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
    • OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
    • OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
    • OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.
  26. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

    • They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
    • They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
    • They request more information about their databases.
    • They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.
  27. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

    • A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
    • Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
    • Cost equals bandwidth.
    • A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
  28. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

    • the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
    • the type of network link
    • the link next-hop IP address
    • the link bandwidth
    • the cost of that link
  29. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

    • The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
    • The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
    • The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
    • The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
    • The link interface subnet masks must match.
    • The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
  30. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

    • RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
    • RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
    • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
    • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
    • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
  31. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

    • Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
    • Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
    • Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
    • The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
    • Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
  32. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

    • to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
    • to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
    • to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
    • to determine which ports are functioning
  33. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security
    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security
      switchport port-security maximum 2
      switchport port-security mac-address sticky
      switchport port-security violation restrict
    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security maximum 2
      switchport port-security mac-address sticky
    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security maximum 2
      switchport port-security mac-address sticky
      switchport port-security violation protect
  34. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

    • An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
    • A cable has not been attached to the port.
    • The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
    • There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
  35. What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state

    01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

    01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

    01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

    • Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
    • An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
    • NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
    • A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
    • Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
  36. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

    • All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
    • The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
    • All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
    • Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.​
  37. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

    • dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
    • dynamic auto – dynamic auto
    • dynamic desirable – dynamic auto
    • dynamic desirable – trunk
    • access – trunk
    • access – dynamic auto
  38. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

    • Change the native VLAN on both ports.
    • Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
    • Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
    • Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
    • Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.
  39. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
  40. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

    • Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.
    • The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
    • This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
    • High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
    • The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
  41. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

    • Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
    • Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
    • Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
    • Switch(config)# no vlan 100
  42. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

    • The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
    • The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
    • A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
    • The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
  43. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

    • All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
    • Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
    • Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
    • Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
  44. Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?CCNA2_Final_04

    • A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
    • There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
    • The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.​
    • The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.​
  45. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

    • The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.
    • The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
    • The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
    • The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.
  46. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?CCNA2_Final_09

    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
  47. Fill in the blank.

    In IPv6, all routes are level​​                1            ultimate routes.

  48. Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the         ip route              global configuration command.

  49. Fill in the blank.

    The OSPF Type 1 packet is the ​            Hello                  packet.

  50. Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is        1         .

  51. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

    • CCNA2_Final_10
  52. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

    • the destination MAC address and the incoming port
    • the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
    • the source MAC address and the incoming port
    • the source MAC address and the outgoing port
  53. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?CCNA2_Final_05

    • 10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
    • 5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
    • 5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
    • 16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
  54. What is a function of the distribution layer?

    • fault isolation
    • network access to the user
    • high-speed backbone connectivity
    • interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
  55. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

    • borderless switching
    • cut-through switching
    • ingress port buffering
    • store-and-forward switching

4 thoughts on “CCNA 2 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured to reach the identified networks in the topology. However, it would be more efficient to configure a summary static route. Which command should be issued in R1 to configure the summary static route?

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