CCNA 3 Practice Final Exam Answer v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?
    • the number of layers of the hierarchical network
    • the number of users on the access layer
    • the role of the malfunctioning device
    • the forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer
  2. Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion?

    • EIGRP
    • BGP
    • OSPF
    • RIPv2
  3. Which model and which two characteristics would be more likely to be considered in purchasing an access layer switch, as compared to buying switches that operate at the other layers of the Cisco hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)

    • Catalyst 2960
    • Catalyst 4500X
    • number of ports
    • PoE
    • EtherChannel
    • RSTP
  4. What are two reasons to install a single 48-port fixed configuration switch, rather than two 24-port fixed configuration switches, in a wiring closet that supports two classrooms? (Choose two.)

    • more power provided to each port
    • more ports available for end devices
    • higher uplink speeds
    • reduced power and space requirements
    • reduced number of VLANs/broadcast domains
  5. In the Cisco hierarchical design model, which layer is more likely to have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers?

    • distribution
    • transport
    • internet
    • access
    • core
  6. What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

    • HTTP access to the device
    • a terminal emulation client
    • Telnet or SSH access to the device
    • a direct connection to the console or AUX port
    • a connection to an operational network interface on the device
  7. Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?

    •  root port
    • non-designated port
    • designated port
    • disabled port  
  8. What two STP features are incorporated into Rapid PVST+? (Choose two.)

    • UplinkFast
    • PortFast
    • BPDU guard
    • BPDU filter
    • BackboneFast
    • loop guard
  9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command output?CCNA3_Practice_Final_05

    • The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the root bridge.
    • The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the backup root bridge.
    • The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all switches believing they are the root.
    • The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.
  10. When the show spanning-tree vlan 33 command is issued on a switch, three ports are shown in the forwarding state. In which two port roles could these interfaces function while in the forwarding state? (Choose two.)

    • disabled
    • designated
    • root
    • alternate
    • blocked
  11. A network administrator is analyzing first-hop router redundancy protocols. What is a characteristic of VRRPv3?

    1. VRRPv3 is Cisco proprietary.
    2. It supports IPv6 and IPv4 addressing.
    3. It works together with HSRP.
    4. It allows load balancing between routers.
  12. Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow data to be transmitted over each access layer switch link and prevent the port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant link?CCNA3_Practice_Final_06

    • EtherChannel
    • HSRP
    • PortFast
    • trunking
  13. A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?

    • The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.
    • The EtherChannel will remain functional.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding mode.
  14. What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

    • Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links.
    • Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.
    • EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.
  15. When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?

    • active
    • auto
    • desirable
    • passive
  16. Which two parameters must match on the ports of two switches to create a PAgP EtherChannel between the switches? (Choose two.)

    • MAC address
    • speed
    • VLAN information
    • PAgP mode
    • port ID
  17. When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?

    • active
    • auto
    • on
    • desirable
  18. Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?

    • channel-group 2 mode auto
    • interface port-channel 2
    • channel-group 1 mode desirable
    • interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5
  19. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?CCNA3_Practice_Final_13

    • The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.
    • The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.
    • The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports.
    • The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.
  20. Which wireless network topology would be used by network engineers to provide a wireless network for an entire college building?

    • ad hoc
    • hotspot
    • infrastructure
    • mixed mode
  21. In wireless networks what is a disadvantage of using mixed mode on an AP?

    • Only 802.11n wireless NICs can attach to the AP.
    • Devices must be closer to the AP due to the limited distance range.
    • The wireless network operates slower if one device uses an older standard wireless NIC.
    • No encryption can be used by the AP or by the wireless NIC that is attached to the AP.
  22. When would a network engineer configure an access point with channel bonding?

    • when security is an issue
    • when more throughput is needed
    • when older wireless NICs are being used
    • when trunking is enabled between the access point and switch
  23. Which method of wireless authentication is currently considered to be the strongest?

    • WEP
    • WPA
    • WPA2
    • open
    • shared key
  24. What is a wireless security mode that requires a RADIUS server to authenticate wireless users?

    • enterprise
    • personal
    • shared key
    • WEP
  25. A laptop cannot connect to a wireless access point. Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken first? (Choose two.)

    • Ensure that the wireless NIC is enabled.
    • Ensure that the laptop antenna is attached.
    • Ensure that the wireless SSID is chosen.
    • Ensure that the correct network media is selected.
    • Ensure that the NIC is configured for the proper frequency.
  26. A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?

    • The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free.
    • Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.
    • The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.
    • The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.
  27. Refer to the exhibit. How did this router learn of the highlighted route in the routing table?CCNA3_Practice_Final_07

    • by entering the router configuration mode command default-information originate
    • by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 interface-type interface-number
    • by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 ip-address
    • by receiving an update from another OSPF router that is running another routing protocol
    • by receiving an update from another OSPF router that has the default-information originate command configured
  28. Refer to the exhibit. What are two consequences of issuing the displayed commands? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Practice_Final_01

    • The routing update information is protected against being falsified.
    • The routing table of R2 will be secured.
    • The key is encrypted with the MD5 hashing algorithm.
    • OSPF routes will get priority over EIGRP routes going into the routing table.
    • The overhead of OSPF information exchange will reduce.
  29. What does an OSPF area contain?

    • routers that share the same router ID
    • routers whose SPF trees are identical
    • routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs
    • routers that share the same process ID
  30. Refer to the exhibit. Why are some of the entries marked O IA?CCNA3_Practice_Final_04

    • They correspond to entries that are learned from other areas.
    • They correspond to entries that are learned from other routing protocols.
    • They represent summary routes that are internal to the area.
    • They are default routes that are learned from other routing protocols.
  31. In which mode is the area area-id range address mask command issued when multiarea OSPF summarization is being configured?

    • global configuration mode
    • router configuration mode
    • interface configuration mode of area 0 interfaces
    • interface configuration mode of all participating interfaces
  32. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information could be determined by a network administrator from this output? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Practice_Final_08

    • R1 is participating in multiarea OSPF.
    • The OSPF process number that is being used is 0.
    • Interface Fa0/1 is not participating in the OSPF process.
    • R1 is the distribution point for the routers that are attached to the 10.0.0.4 network.
    • The metric that will be installed in the routing table for the 10.0.0.0 route will be 65 (64+1).
  33. Which statement describes the Autonomous System number that is used in EIGRP?

    • It defines the reliability of the EIGRP routing protocol.
    • It identifies the priority of the networks to be included in update packets.
    • It is associated with the global Autonomous System number that is assigned by IANA.
    • It specifies the EIGRP routing process on a router.
  34. What are two reasons to implement passive interfaces in the EIGRP configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

    • to provide increased network security
    • to shut down unused interfaces
    • to avoid unnecessary update traffic
    • to mitigate attacks coming from the interfaces
    • to exclude interfaces from load balancing
  35. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the show ip eigrp neighbors command. What can be concluded from the output?CCNA3_Practice_Final_09

    • There is no incoming EIGRP message at this moment.
    • The first EIGRP neighbor R1 learned about has the IP address 10.10.10.2.
    • An EIGRP neighbor with IP address 10.10.10.14 is connected to R1 via serial interface 0/1/0.
    • If R1 does not receive a Hello packet in 4 seconds from the neighbor with IP 10.10.10.18, it will declare the neighbor is down.
  36. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip protocols command. Based on the exhibited output, what can be concluded?CCNA3_Practice_Final_10

    • The EIGRP K values are default values.
    • R1 receives routes to the network 192.168.1.0/24 and 10.0.0.0/24.
    • The no auto-summary command is not applied for the EIGRP operation.
    • Up to 4 routes of different metric values to the same destination network will be included in the routing table.
  37. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?CCNA3_Practice_Final_14

    • EIGRP does not support VLSM.
    • The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
    • The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
    • An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.
  38. Which two metric weights are set to one by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose two.)

    • k1
    • k2
    • k3
    • k4
    • k5
    • k6
  39. Which command can be issued on a router to display information about the successors and feasible successors for a destination network when EIGRP is used as the routing protocol?

    • show ip protocols
    • show ip eigrp topology
    • show ip eigrp interfaces
    • show ip eigrp neighbors
  40. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6 on a router and receives the error message that is shown. Which command must be issued by the administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured?CCNA3_Practice_Final_02

    • no shutdown
    • eigrp router-id 100.100.100.100
    • ipv6 unicast-routing
    • ipv6 eigrp 100
    • ipv6 cef
  41. A network administrator is configuring the authentication for EIGRP routing. The administrator enters these commands:

    R1(config)# key chain THE_KEY
    R1(config-keychain)# key 1
    R1(config-keychain-key)# key-string key123

    What is the next step necessary to enable the authentication for EIGRP routing?

    • Configure the priority of authentication algorithms to be used.
    • Configure the authentication on all interfaces that are participating in EIGRP.
    • Configure an ACL to identify the networks that are participating in EIGRP.
    • Configure the authentication in the router eigrp as-number configuration mode.
  42. Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?CCNA3_Practice_Final_03

    • The AS number does not match on R1 and R2.
    • The automatic summarization is enabled on R1 and R2.
    • The IPv4 address of Fa0/0 interface of R1 has a wrong IP address.​
    • There is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1.​
  43. A network administrator is troubleshooting the EIGRP routing between two routers, R1 and R2. The problem is found to be that only some, but not all networks attached to R1 are listed in the routing table of router R2. What should the administrator investigate on router R1 to determine the cause of the problem?

    • Does the AS number match the AS number on R2?
    • Does the hello interval setting match the hello interval on R2?
    • Do the network commands include all the networks to be advertised?
    • Is the interface connected to R2 configured as a passive interface?
  44. For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of information can be collected using the show ip protocols command? (Choose three.)

    • any interfaces that are enabled for EIGRP authentication
    • any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive
    • the IP addresses that are configured on adjacent routers
    • any ACLs that are affecting the EIGRP routing process
    • networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP routing protocol
    • the local interface that is used to establish an adjacency with EIGRP neighbors
  45. Refer to the exhibit. The routing table on R2 does not include all networks that are attached to R1. The network administrator verifies that the network statement is configured to include these two networks. What is a possible cause of the issue?CCNA3_Practice_Final_11

    • The AS number does not match between R1 and R2.
    • The network statements should include the wild card mask.
    • The no auto-summary command is missing in the R1 configuration.
    • The interfaces that are connected to these two networks are configured as passive interfaces.
  46. What are three characteristics of the Cisco IOS Software Release 12.4T train? (Choose three.)

    • It requires the activation of a license.
    • It has a number of embedded technology packages.
    • It is updated with new features and hardware support.
    • It is derived from the Cisco IOS Software Release 12.4 Mainline train.
    • It has extended maintenance new feature releases approximately every 16 to 20 months.
    • It receives regular software fixes that are synchronized with the 12.4 Mainline train.
  47. If a company wants to upgrade a Cisco 2800 router from IOS 12.4T, what IOS should be recommended for a stable router platform?

    • 12.5T
    • 13.1T
    • 14.0
    • 15.1M
  48. A router has been removed from the network for maintenance. A new Cisco IOS software image has been successfully downloaded to a server and copied into the flash of the router. What should be done before placing the router back into service?

    • Back up the new image.
    • Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.
    • Delete the previous version of the Cisco IOS software from flash.
    • Restart the router and verify that the new image starts successfully.
  49. Which step supports disaster recovery and should be performed first when upgrading an IOS system image on a Cisco router?

    • Delete the current image from flash memory.
    • Copy the current image from the router to a TFTP server.
    • Use the boot system command to configure the router to load the new image.
    • Configure the router to load the new image from the TFTP server.
  50. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is preparing to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. Based on the output shown, how much space is available for the new image?CCNA3_Practice_Final_12

    • 25574400 bytes
    • 249856000 bytes
    • 221896413 bytes
    • 33591768 bytes
  51. The customer of a networking company requires VPN connectivity for workers who must travel frequently. To support the VPN server, the customer router must be upgraded to a new Cisco IOS software version with the Advanced IP Services feature set. What should the field engineer do before copying the new IOS to the router?

    • Set the router to load the new IOS image file directly from the TFTP server on the next reboot.
    • Delete the currently installed IOS by using the erase flash: command, and reload the router.
    • Issue the show running-configuration command to determine the features of the currently installed IOS image file.
    • Issue the show version and the show flash commands to ensure that the router has enough memory and file space to support the new IOS image.
  52. Fill in the blank.
    In RSTP, BPDU frames are sent every      2     seconds by default.

  53. Fill in the blank.

    EIGRP keeps feasible successor routes in the       topology               table.

  54. Fill in the blank.

    By default, EIGRP is able to use up to      50        percent of the bandwidth for EIGRP messages on an EIGRP-enabled interface.

  55. Match the switched LAN problem to the correct symptom. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Practice_Final_001

  56. Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur during the HSRP failover process. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Practice_Final_002

  57. Match each OSPF LSA description with its type. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Practice_Final_003

  58. Match the step sequence to the multiarea OSPF route calculation process. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Practice_Final_004

  59. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    Which message was displayed on the web server?

    • You’ve made it!
    • Congratulations!
    • Wonderful work!
    • Work done!
  60. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    Why are users in the OSPF network not able to access the Internet?

    • The default route is not redistributed correctly from router R1 by OSPF.
    • The interface that is connected to the ISP router is down.
    • The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on routers R2 and R3.
    • The OSPF timers that are configured on routers R1, R2, and R3 are not compatible.
    • The network statement is misconfigured on router R1.

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