CCNA 3 Pretest Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

    •  RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
    • RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
    • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
    • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
    • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0  
  2. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

    • access-class 5 in
    • access-list 5 deny any
    • access-list standard VTY
      permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
    • access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
    • ip access-group 5 out
    • ip access-group 5 in
  3. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?​CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_02

    • Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.
    • Change the administrative distance to 1.
    • Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.
    • Change the administrative distance to 120.
  4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_03

    • The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
    • No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
    • The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
    • The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
  5. Refer to the exhibit.

    What summary static address should be configured on R3 to advertise to an upstream neighbor?CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_04

    • 192.168.0.0/24
    • 192.168.0.0/23
    • 192.168.0.0/22
    • 192.168.0.0/21
  6. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

    • S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan
    • S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan
    • S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
    • S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
    • S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
  7. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

    • Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
    • Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.
    • Configure SSH for remote management.
    • Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
    • Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.
  8. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

    • scalability
    • ISP selection
    • speed of convergence
    • the autonomous system that is used
    • campus backbone architecture
  9. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

    • the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
    • the type of network link
    • the link next-hop IP address
    • the link bandwidth
    • the cost of that link
  10. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

    • There is no end-to-end addressing.
    • The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​
    • The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
    • The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​
  11. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
  12. What is a function of the distribution layer?

    • fault isolation
    • network access to the user
    • high-speed backbone connectivity
    • interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
  13. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

    • Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.
    • Half duplex has only one channel.
    • All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
    • Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.
    • Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.
  14. Which three parameters could be in an extended access control list? (Choose three.)

    • access list number between 1 and 99
    • access list number between 100 and 199
    • default gateway address and wildcard mask
    • destination address and wildcard mask
    • source address and wildcard mask
    • subnet mask and wild card mask
  15. An organization needs to provide temporary voice and data services to a new small lab building. They plan to install an access switch in the new lab and connect it using a 100Mb/s FastEthernet trunk link. The network administrator is concerned about the capability of the link to meet quality requirements of the proposed voice and data services. The administrator plans to manage the datalink layer traffic to and from the lab so that trunk usage is optimized. What could the administrator apply to the trunk to help achieve this?

    • Disable Spanning Tree Protocol to provide maximum bandwidth for the voice and data traffic.
    • Configure the switches to run Per VLAN Spanning Tree for the voice and data VLANs only.
    • Configure the lab switch to use the same voice and data VLAN as the rest of the campus LAN.
    • Configure the trunk ports on the trunk link to the lab to allow only the voice and data VLANs.
  16. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

    • OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
    • OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
    • OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
    • OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.
  17. Refer to the exhibit. Which address will R1 use as the source address for all OSPFv3 messages that will be sent to neighbors?CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_08

    • FE80::1
    • 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::1
    • FF02::1
    • FF02::5
  18. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

    • Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
    • Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
    • Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
    • The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
    • Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
  19. Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area after convergence?

    • adjacency database
    • link-state database
    • routing table
    • SPF tree
  20. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

    • They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
    • They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
    • They can be created with a number but not with a name.
    • They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
  21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip route command on R2. What two types of routes are installed in the routing table? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_01

    • a configured default route
    • directly connected networks
    • routes that are learned through the OSPF routing protocol
    • routes that are learned through the EIGRP routing protocol
    • a configured static route to the network 209.165.200.224
  22. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_05

    • dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
    • PAT using an external interface
    • static NAT with one entry
    • static NAT with a NAT pool
  23. What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?

    • The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled.
    • All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers.
    • All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN.
    • Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.
  24. Fill in the blank.
    The           ip default-gateway             command is used to configure the default gateway on a switch.

  25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?

    • PC-A, PC-B
    • PC-D, PC-E
    • PC-A, PC-B, PC-E
    • PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E
    • PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E, PC-F
  26. When are EIGRP update packets sent?

    • only when necessary
    • when learned routes age out
    • every 5 seconds via multicast
    • every 30 seconds via broadcast
  27. Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?

    • EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
    • EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.
    • EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
    • EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.
  28. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

    • prevents Layer 2 loops
    • prevents routing loops on a router
    • creates smaller collision domains
    • creates smaller broadcast domains
    • allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
  29. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?

    • Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
    • Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
    • Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
    • It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding
  30. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

    • WPA
    • WEP
    • WPA2 with TKIP
    • WPA2 with AES
  31. Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?

    • ad hoc mode
    • hotspot
    • infrastructure mode
    • mixed mode
  32. A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?

    • The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free.
    • Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.
    • The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.
    • The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.
  33. What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

    • Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links.
    • Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.
    • EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.
  34. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_11

    • MAC address of the forwarding router
    • MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
    • MAC address of the standby router
    • MAC address of the virtual router
  35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_06

    • There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.
    • The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.
    • The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
    • The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
    • Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.
  36. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_07

    • This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
    • This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.
    • This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
    • This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
  37. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_09

    • There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.
    • The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
    • The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
    • The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.
  38. Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Pretest_Exam_10

    • S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.
    • S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.
    • S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.
    • S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.
    • S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.
  39. A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a Layer 2 switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?

    • This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network.
    • The MAC address table is corrupt.
    • The VLAN database is full.
    • The outbound interface is set for half duplex.
  40. What are the two methods that a wireless NIC can use to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

    • sending an ARP request broadcast
    • sending a multicast frame
    • transmitting a probe request
    • initiating a three-way handshake
    • receiving a broadcast beacon frame

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